The Acceptable Year of the Lord – What was it and when did it take place?

By Kathy Beardsley, December 10, 2023

There are only two references that mention “the acceptable year of the Lord,” Isaiah 61:2 and Luke 4:19. It is proclaimed in Isaiah and preached in Luke. While trying to discover just what “the acceptable year of the Lord” is, I initially came to a conclusion that there could be a few plausible answers—figurative and literal. Finding the correct one, if it is meant to be found, is what I was willing to spend the time necessary to search the scriptures for. In doing so, the following is what I found and concluded.

The primary answer I have heard and read about is “the acceptable year of the Lord” relates to the year of jubile (Lev. 25:9) because “acceptable” is defined as “favor; favorable” which is then interpreted as the “year of the LORD’S favor”—God the Father showing favor toward His people. After reading the whole chapter there is no denying that takes place, but is this evidence that the answer is correct?

“Acceptable” as it appears in scripture begins the phrase, it does not end it. Keeping it where it belongs it reads “The favorable (or favored) year of the LORD” implying that “the acceptable year of the LORD” is a year that pleases God not man—one year set apart from all others in which a significant part of His plan takes place for His glory, honor and praise. ALL things had to be acceptable unto Him, from the people’s sacrifices and offerings to their obedience and keeping that which is holy unto the LORD holy. Compare the day of atonement in Leviticus chapters 23 & 25. There is both affliction and liberation; judgment and salvation. Also, compare the example of the two scapegoats (Lev. 16:8-26). One was for the LORD offered as a sin offering, and to the other was laid Israel’s guilt which was then sent away—the goat bearing “upon him all their iniquities unto a land not inhabited.”

Notice in Leviticus 25:9 the jubile began on the day of atonement. A specific day, the tenth day of the seventh month. The fact that the people were commanded that no work shall be done on this day can only mean that observing their day of atonement, humbling themselves, and doing penance was kept as a priority so the jubile began at sunset when work would normally be ended. We also read in Leviticus 23:29, 30 that disobedience on this day incurred the Father’s vengeance (judgment) on them. Afterwards, the trumpets sounded and liberty was proclaimed. Freedom and all manner of joy filled the land for the captives were set free, and possessions including land were returned, and so on. This was a year of pardon and punishment and God was glorified in it, BUT it was set apart for the people (Lev. 25:10-12). The jubile occurred every fiftieth year. Though the wait was long between jubilees it can be considered as one would the feast of unleavened bread (the Passover)—a regularly scheduled occasion. For these reasons, the jubile has to be disqualified as the “acceptable year of the Lord.” So where do we go from here?

Luke 4:17-20. Midway through his ministry (approx. A.D. 31) Jesus came to Nazareth where he had been brought up and went to the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up to read. He is handed the book of Isaiah wherein he reads the passage in 61:1 and the beginning of verse 2. Afterwards, he sits and says, “This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.” He stopped there, where Isaiah continued with “and the day of vengeance of our God, etc.” Why do you suppose Jesus did this? I surmise it is because Jesus was not sent to preach His Father’s vengeance aka judgments; only His salvation (John 12:47) which could come no other way except by bearing the sins of mankind and sacrificing himself on the cross. It makes sense if Jesus is proclaiming, among the other things listed, that he has fulfilled preaching “the acceptable year of the Lord” that it’s unlikely he is referring to the jubile or to anything in the future. He had already been and was continuing to do his Father’s will until that fateful day on the cross.

Did you know that A.D. (Latin = Anno Domini) means “in the year of our Lord”? It refers to the year of Jesus’ birth which is used as a reference point in time thus B.C. is Before Christ. “In the Year of our Lord” appears on several official documents two of which are the US Constitution and the Bill of Rights. It has been used as a common phrase in conjunction with each year that passes since the birth of Jesus Christ. More recently, in an attempt to remove the relation to Christ from the terms, BCE and CE have been used. The former meaning of “Before the Common Era” and the latter “Common Era.” Regardless, the year of Jesus’ birth is still the point of reference. For Christians it is a significant year to be noted for sure, but is it the “acceptable” year of the Lord? Jesus’ birth was proclaimed but only a small number in comparison at the time rejoiced in the fact. He was hated and not accepted of his own Luke 4:24. But it is not the people’s acceptance that is needed, it is God the Father’s.

Now consider that the word “acceptable” is most often connected to the words “holy,” “holy unto the LORD,” and “without blemish.” A requirement for the sacrifices given unto the LORD throughout the Old Testament. A foreshadow of Jesus’ sacrifice. 1 Pet. 1:19 “But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:.” Jesus undertook and completed both roles of the scapegoats—he was the accepted (unto God) unblemished sacrifice who also bore our sins away so we can be made holy and acceptable unto the Father when the day comes to see Him face to face. So when did this “acceptable year of the Lord” take place? A.D. 33. This is the acceptable year of the Lord!